1- The major action of sodium chromoglycate
is:-
a- mast cell stabilization b- bronchodilator
c- prostaglandins modifier d- leukotrienes
modifier e-non of the above
2- The action of histamine is :
a- capillary constriction b- elevation
of blood pressure
c- stimulation of gastric secretion d- skeletal muscle paralysis
e- slowing the heart rate
3- One of the following antibiotics is
resistant to penicillinase :
a- penicillin V b- penicillin G
c- floxapen d- ampicillin
e- amoxicillin
4- Inderal is :
a- similar in
action to ergotamine b- similar in action to tubocurarine
c- used as an
antihistamine d- pure b-adrenergic
receptor blocker
5- Rifampicin is indicated for treatment of :
a- impaired fat absorption b-pulmonary
emboli
c- tuberculosis d-neoplastic
disorders e-psoriasis
6- Which of the following is non selective b1
blocker ?
a- Labitolol b- terazosine
c- Cloridine d- Captopril
e- Verapamil
7- The Latin abbreviation for " After
Meals " is :
a- a.c. b- a.a.
c- p.c. d- i.c. e-
c.c.
8- The latin abbreviation for " Four
Times Daily " is :
a- a.c. b- a.a.
c- p.c. d- q.i.d. e- c.c.
9- The latin abbreviation for " Every
Night " is :
a- a.c. b- o.n.
c- p.c. d- i.c. e-
c.c.
10- Erythroped A :
a- is effective against G +ve Cocci
b- is a macrolide antibiotic
c- can increase g.i.t. motility
d- could be used in pregnant women if need
e-all of the above
11- For
the treatment of anaphylactic shock use :
a- salbutamol b- diphenhydramine
c- acetazolamide d- epinephrine
e- aminophylline
12- Allopurinol is used as :
a- analgesic agent b- uricosuric agent
c- antiinflamatory agent d- antipyretic
agent
e- agent which increases renal tubular
reabsorption
Allopurinol
inhibits xanthine oxidase, reducing the conversion of hypoxanthine and xanthine
to uric acid and resulting in direct inhibition of purine biosynthesis due to
elevated oxypurine concentration (negative feedback). Oxypurinol also inhibits
xanthine oxidase. So anyway you have dramatically decreased uric acid concentrations,
decreased renal tubular transport of uric acid, and then the side effect of
increased tubular reabsorption of calcium.
13- Which of the following is NOT betamethasone
side effect ?
A- Cataract b- hypoglycemia
c- Skeletal muscle weakness d- sodium retention
e- Lowered resistance to infections
14- A disease which is due to viral infection :
a- poliomyelitis b-rabies
c- chicken pox d- herpes
e- all of the above
15- The mechanism of action of atropine is :
a- muscarinic antagonist b- muscarinic
agonist
c- nicotinic antagonist d- nicotinic agonist
e- non of the above
16- Myocardial muscle tissue property to
generate electrical is :
a- inotropy b- chronotropy
c- automaticity d- contractility
e- non of the above "Dromotropic
effect"
17- The heart`s dominant pacemaker is :
a- AV node b- SA node
c- pukinje fiber d-internodal
pathways
e- non of the above
18- Adenosine is used for :
a- ventricular arrythmias b- atrial bradycardia
c- supraventricular tachycardia d- supraventricular
bradycardia
e- non of the above
19-
Adenosine P produces which of the following :
a- facial flushing b- dyspnea
c- marked tachycardia d- a
and b
e- a , b and c
20- Which
of the following is responcible for buffering
a- magnesium b- chloride
c- bicarbonates d- potassium
e- troponin
21- Respiratory acidosis is due to :
a- O2 removal b- O2
retention
c- CO2 removal d- CO2 retention
e- non of the above
22- Which of the following is NOT colloid
solution ?
a- albumin 5% b- ringer`s
solution
c- dextran d- beta
starch
e- albumin 20%
23- The term shock signifies :
a- hyperperfusion b- hypoperfusion
c- tachycardia d- bradycardia
e- non of the above
24- In treatment of shock , which of the
following should be considered?
a- airway control b- IV of crystalloid solution
c- dopamine to support blood pressure
d- monitor heart rhythm e- all
of the above
25- Which of the following is released by
bacterial infection?(…. by bacterial cell wall during there growth)
a- endotoxin b- exotoxin
c- antibiotics d- cytotoxin
e- non of the above
26- the amount of water in adult male is about:
a- 25% b-60% c-80% d-10% e-17%
27- Which of the following are causes of oedema?
a- Increase hydrostatic pressure
b- Decrease oncotic pressure c- capillary
permeability
d- a and b e- a , b and
28-
Patients prescribed non reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor should be
advised not to consume food containing tyramine because this combination
causes:
a- postural hypotension b- hallucinations
c- anaphylactic shock d- muscle
weakness and tremor
e- acute adrenergic crisis including sever
hypertention
29-
Concerning COX 2 inhibitors , which is NOT true?
a- they have lower risk gastric adverse
reactions
b- good evidence about their effectiveness
c- cardiac toxicity is a recent concern of
this class
d- they usually administrated twice daily
e- combination with non selective agents give
more effective action
30- In the treatment of osteoporosis which of
the following is NOT true?
a- alendronate should be taken 60 min. before
breakfast
b- Ca and vit. D are essential
c- hormone replacement therapy should be
considered
d- outcome should be assessed with periodic
bone density
e- raloxifeno is selective oestrogen
modulator
31- Which of the following is the first choice
in acute gout?
a- allopurinol b- indomethacin
c- colchicine d- probencid e-sulfinylpyrazone
32- Which of the following is NOT a risk factor
for osteoparalysis?
a- minimal exercise b- low calcium intake
c- male gender d- family history
e- minimal exposure to sunlight
33- Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning are :
a- lethergy & fatigue b-skin rash & headache
c- throbbing headache & dizziness d-fluid retention hypotension
e- ringing in the ears & blurred vision
34- Which of the following is NOT true about
infiximuab
a- IL-1 blocker
b- used for treatment of
severe rheumatoid arthritis
c- may increase risk of infections
d- administered as IV infusion
e- postadministration reactions include fever
& chills
35- A
disease modifying drugs in rheumatoid arthritis:
a- gold preparations b- hydroxychloroquine
c- methotrexate d- a and b
e- a , b and c
36- A
patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial diagnosis :
a- slow ventricular response using verapamil b- start
lidocaine infusion
c- considered anticoagulation with warfarine d- a and b
37- Which of the following is true about
surgical prophylaxis ?
a- it is given to treat surgery associated
infections
b- it is given to reduce the possibility of
surgical site infection
c- should always be given regardless type of
surgery
d- should be continued for 7 days after
surgery e-all are true
38- When diagnosis of diabetes to be considered
:
a- WBC count with differential
b- oral glucose tolerance test
c- HBA1c d-
a and b e- b and
c
39- The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the
range of:
a- 1-5 mg b- 15-60
mg
c- 300-600 d- should
be continued for 7 days after surgery
e- all are true
40- Goals of diabetes mellitus management
include:
a- reduce onset of complications b- control
symptoms of diabetes
c- near normal glycemic control and HBA1c
d- a and b e- a , b and c
41- When dosing insulin which of the following
is true?
a- initial dose 0.6 u / kg / day split 2/3
a.m and 1/3 p.m
b- regular NPH ratio is 1 : 1 or 1 : 2
c- dose may need to be increased during
acute illness
d- b and c
e- a , b and c
42- What first line agent may be considered for
an obese type 2 ?
a- glyburinid b- insulin c- metformin
d- nateglinid e- repaglinid
43- A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of NaCl exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution?
a- 3.33 b- 0.15
c- 1.60 d- 3.00
x 10-4 e- 1.6x10 -4
Morality=mole/volume
(L) Mole=molecular weight of subs. In 1 grams So, molecular weight of
NACL=23+34=57 So, Mole=17.52/57=0.307
So, Morality=0.307/2=0.153
44- Which of the following drugs exhibits dose
dependant pharmaceutical therapeutic doses ?
a- Na valproate b- phenytoin c-lithium
d- quinidine e- carbamazepine
45- Propranolol is often prescribed with
hydralazine to
a- reduce the reflex tachycardia
b- prevent the accumulation of hydralazine.
c- prevent systemic lupus ( SLE ) due to
hydralazine.
d- prevent oedema
e- increase absorption of hydralazine
46- The ability of a liquid to dissolve is :
a- hydrophilicity b- miscibility
c- immiscibility d- solubility equilibrium
47- Which of the following is NOT correct ?
a- glitazones are ineffective as mono therapy
b- GIT disturbance are common side effects of
glycosidase inhibitors-a
c- start with small dose of oral agent and
triturate up to 1-2 weeks
d- life style modification should not be enforced if an oral agent to be started
e- lisepro is rapid acting insulin to be dosed immediately before meals
48- In CHF
management the following is not correct:
a- ACEIs such as lisinopril improves left
ventricular function & reduces mortality -blocker such as carvidailol may
have beneficialb
b- effect in selected patient
c- spironolactone should be avoided because
of the great risk of hypokalemia
d- non drug therapy includes appropriate
fluid and dietary sodium-restriction
e- symptomatic improvement is one of the
major assessment criteria for proper therapy
49- Which
of the following is NOT a primary literature
a- gournal of pharmacy practice
b- applied therapeutic & clinical use of
drug
c- new England Journal of medicine
d- Loncet e- JAMA
50- References to check compatibility of drugs
in parentral administration:
a- MERCK Index b- handbook on injectable drugs
c- micromedix d- a and b
e- b and c
51- When a CNS depressant is prescribed , which
of the following is NOT taken at the same time?
a- analgesic b- verapamil
c- aspirin d- diphenhydramine
e- orange juice
52- A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to a
adult will act as :
a- analgesic b- hypnotic
c- diuretic d- antihistaminic
e- antiulcerant
53- The drug of choice to control pain during
acute myocardial infarction is :
a- naloxone b- bethidine
c- morphine d- celecoxib
e- naproxen
54- What is a major contraindication to the use
of an OTC sympathomimetic drug:
a- gastric ulcer b- uncontrolled hypotension
c- severe asthma d- rheumatoid arthritis
e- hypertension
55-Category
C in FDA for drug used in pregnancy :
a- controlled studies fail to demonstrate a
risk to the fetus in the trimester and there is no evidence of risk in later
trimester
b- Fetal risk NOT demonstrated in animal
studies but there are no controlled studies in pregnant women or animal
reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect that was NOT confirmed in
controlled studies in women during trimester
c- Either animal study have revealed adverse
effect on the fetus and there are no controlled human studies or studies in
animal and women are not available
d- There is positive evidence of human fetal
risk but the benefits of use in pregnant woman may be acceptable despite the
risk
56- What advice would you give to a patient prescribed
rifampicin?
a- take this medication with food or milk
b- avoid multivitamine preparations during
treatment
c- avoid taking paracetamol during treatment
d- possible discolouration of skin is of no
importance
e- this medication may cause discolouration of
urine
57- Correct method of parentral administration
of potassium is:
a- fast I.V. injection
b- slow I.V. injection
c- I.M. injection
d- IP(intraperitoneal) injection
58- Which route of administration would provide
the most rapid onset of action response to morphine ?
a- oral b- S.C. c- I.V.
d- I.M. e- rectal
59- The long term administration of thiazide
diuretics requires :
a- K+ b-
Na+ c- Ca++
d- CO3 e- acetate
60- Fifty micrograms equals:
a- 50000 (nanogrames)? b- 0.05 (
milligrams )?
c- 0.0005g d- a and b
e- a and c
61- When concidering drug therapy for
hypertention , which is true?
a- combination of drugs always preferred
b- hydralazine is first line therapy in young
hypertension
c- furosemide should be administrated before
meal to improve absorption d-beta-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic
patient
e- ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women
62- Which
of the following is NOT used in theophylline toxicity management :
a- symptomatic control of seizures with
benzodiazepine
b- activated charcoal to enhance elimination
c- b blocker for tachycardia
d- control vomiting with metoclopramide
e- methylphenidate to reduce excessive
sedation
63-
Regarding the use of ACEIs :
a- associated hypokalemia could be avoided by
giving K-supplement
b- effective in reducing proteinurea in
diabetic patient
c- most common side effect is chronic dry
cough
d- a good first line treatment for
hypertensive diabetic
e- dose should be started low and triturated
gradually upward in need
64- Regarding treatment of digoxin toxicity:
a- verify time of last time
b- check Mg and K levels and correct if
needed c-monitor ECG
d- no antidote for digoxin e-supportive care
65- The antimalarial to avoid in
glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency :
a- primaquine b- quinine
c- chloroguanide
66- HOW can prepare 100 ml of 12% MgCl by
taking?
a- 12ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water
b- 12mg of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water
c- 12ml of MGCL dissolve in 1000 ml water
d- 90.5 ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water
e- 0.95 ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water
68- The following is NOT characteristic of
solution:
a- thermodynamically stable
b- composed of two or more component that
exist in one phase c-homogenous
d- the solvent and solute can be separated by
filtration e-solute doesn`t precipitate as time passes
69- Role of carbidopa in treatment of
Parkinsonism.
a- ↓
Serotonin reuptake b- dopamine
agonist
c- Decrease dopamine METABOLISM in
peripheral vessel
d- Dopamine antagonist e- 5HT1 antagonist
70- Role of B-blockers in angina. :
A- subress activation of the heart so
decrease work of the heart by decrease cardiac output ………….
b- subress activation of the heart so increase
work of the heart by increase cardiac output ………….
c- a
& b
71- When drug absorbed through GIT then go to
liver and excreted this process called
a- first pass b- drug
metabolism
c- drug distribution
72- All the following anti inflammatory,
analgesic effect except
a- ibuprofen b- aspirin
c- naprosyn d- sevredol
73- which of the following need filtration
before IV infusion
a- mannitol b- dextrose
5%
c- insulin d- Suspension e- emulsion
74- azaleic acid used in
a- acne b- psoriasis c- myocardial
infarction
75- which hormone are secreted from posterior
pituitary gland
a- oxytocin b- growth
hormone
c- adrenocorticosteroid hormone
76- to increase duration of lidocaine in
anasethia
a- propranolol b- succinyl choline
c- epinephrine d- Atropine
77- Drug absorption depend on
a- age b- sex c- dosage
form
d- Drug state e- A
and B
78- monitoring for dose in elderly patient:
a- excretion in kidney decrease b- decrease
in liver enzymes function c- reabsorption
is high d- metabolism is
high e- A
,b
79- which of the following cause metallic taste
a- captopril b- cimetidine
c- metoformin d- Meteronidazole
80- which of the following are characteristic
for Erythroped
a- not effective against G +ve cocci
b- not macrolide antibiotic
c- can increase GIT motility
81- which of the following are characteristic
for Erythrosine:
a- not effective against G+ve cocci
b- has amino glycoside antibiotic
c- decrease GIT motility
d- should not be used in pregnant woman if
need
e- could be used in pregnant woman if need
82- the optimal size for ophthalmic drops:- <
10μg
83- Amphetamine is used in:
defect of
awareness in the brain of children.
84- if packaged are written for expiry November
2006 it mean that can be used till
a- 1 November b- 31 November
85- The mechanism of action of Buspirone through
a- 5HT antagonist b- GABA agonist c- dopaminergic agnoist
d- dopaminergic antagonist
86- Nitroglycerine introduces:
coronary
vasodilatation.
87- Omeprazole used to:
decrease
gastric acid secretion.
88- which of the following has aldosterone
antagonist effect
a- amiloride b- furosemide
d- hydrochlorothiazide
89- which of the following change color of the
urine to red
a- nitrofurantoin , rifampicin
b- Rifaximin
c- Isonizide
90- if
patient take Gentamicin for a time which of the following need monitoring test
a- serum creatinine level b-
liver enz. test
c- hemoglobin test d- ......................
91- which of the following is antiarrythmic
class Ιa:-
a- lidocaine b- propranolol
c- amiodarone d- Quinidine
92- Class ΙΙ antiarrythmic drugs produce its
action through:-
a- decrease rate of phase 0 depolarization
b- increase phase 3 repolarization
c- adrenergic receptor blocking
d- shorten action potential
93- antiarrythmic drug class Ιb produce its
action through:-
a- decrease rate of phase 0 depolarization
b- increase phase 3 repolarization
c- decrease phase 4 depolarization
d- adrenergic receptor blocking
94- Chiral molecule mean:-
a- dipole moment
b- solubility
c- chelating prep.
d- optical activity.
95- lovastatin produce action through:-
HMG-co
reductase inhibitor.
96- lisopril , zinopril or zestril is found in
:-
a- captopril b- fosinopril
c- ramipril d- lisinopri
97- ″ om″ is abbreviation for at morning.
ophthalmic
prescription are written through following
( gtt tod Bid ) this mean:-
a- give one drop to right eye twice daily
b- give one drop to left eye twice daily
c- shake well and then give one drop to left
eye twice daily
d- shake well and then give one drop to right
eye twice daily.
99- tegretol is used in ttt of:-
status
epileptic, seizures.
100- Streptokinase is used in ttt of:-
pulmonary
emboli.
| Question # | Answer | Question # | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | a | 52 | b |
| 2 | c | 53 | c |
| 3 | c | 54 | e |
| 4 | d | 55 | c |
| 5 | c | 56 | e |
| 6 | a | 57 | b |
| 7 | c | 58 | c |
| 8 | d | 59 | a |
| 9 | b | 60 | d |
| 10 | e | 61 | d |
| 11 | d | 62 | e |
| 12 | e | 63 | c |
| 13 | b | 64 | b |
| 14 | e | 65 | a |
| 15 | a | 66 | b |
| 16 | c | 67 | d |
| 17 | b | 68 | d |
| 18 | c | 69 | c |
| 19 | d | 70 | a |
| 20 | c | 71 | a |
| 21 | d | 72 | d |
| 22 | b | 73 | d |
| 23 | b | 74 | a |
| 24 | e | 75 | a |
| 25 | b | 76 | c |
| 26 | b | 77 | c |
| 27 | e | 78 | e |
| 28 | e | 79 | a |
| 29 | e | 80 | c |
| 30 | a | 81 | e |
| 31 | b | 82 | a |
| 32 | c | 83 | a |
| 33 | e | 84 | b |
| 34 | a | 85 | c |
| 35 | e | 86 | a |
| 36 | b | 87 | a |
| 37 | b | 88 | c |
| 38 | e | 89 | a |
| 39 | c | 90 | a |
| 40 | e | 91 | d |
| 41 | e | 92 | c |
| 42 | c | 93 | e |
| 43 | b | 94 | d |
| 44 | b | 95 | a |
| 45 | a | 96 | d |
| 46 | b | 97 | a |
| 47 | d | 98 | d |
| 48 | c | 99 | a |
| 49 | b | 100 | a |
| 50 | e | row50 col 4 | |
| 51 | d |