100 Prometric Pharmacy MCQs (1st)

1-      The major action of sodium chromoglycate is:-

a-      mast cell stabilization      b-      bronchodilator

c-       prostaglandins modifier   d-      leukotrienes modifier e-non of the above

2-      The action of histamine is :

a-      capillary constriction                 b-  elevation of blood pressure

c-       stimulation of gastric secretion d-  skeletal muscle paralysis      

e-      slowing the heart rate


3-      One of the following antibiotics is resistant to penicillinase :

a-      penicillin V             b-      penicillin G

c-       floxapen                d-      ampicillin               e-      amoxicillin


4-      Inderal is :

a- similar in action to ergotamine       b- similar in action to tubocurarine

c- used as an antihistamine                d-  pure b-adrenergic receptor blocker

5-      Rifampicin is indicated for treatment of :

a-      impaired fat absorption             b-pulmonary emboli

c-       tuberculosis                              d-neoplastic disorders     e-psoriasis

6-      Which of the following is non selective b1 blocker ?

a-      Labitolol                 b-      terazosine

c-       Cloridine                d-      Captopril               e-      Verapamil


7-      The Latin abbreviation for " After Meals " is :

a-      a.c.                       b-      a.a.   

c-       p.c.                       d- i.c.                              e- c.c.


8-      The latin abbreviation for " Four Times Daily " is :

a-      a.c.                       b- a.a.        

c-       p.c.                       d- q.i.d.       e- c.c.


9-      The latin abbreviation for " Every Night " is :

a-      a.c.                        b- o.n.

c-       p.c.                       d- i.c.           e- c.c.

10-    Erythroped A :

a-      is effective against G +ve Cocci

b-      is a macrolide antibiotic

c-       can increase g.i.t. motility

d-      could be used in pregnant women if need e-all of the above


11- For the treatment of anaphylactic shock use :

a-      salbutamol            b-      diphenhydramine

c-       acetazolamide       d-      epinephrine

e-      aminophylline


12-    Allopurinol is used as :

a-      analgesic agent               b-      uricosuric agent

c-       antiinflamatory agent      d-      antipyretic agent

e-      agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption


Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, reducing the conversion of hypoxanthine and xanthine to uric acid and resulting in direct inhibition of purine biosynthesis due to elevated oxypurine concentration (negative feedback). Oxypurinol also inhibits xanthine oxidase. So anyway you have dramatically decreased uric acid concentrations, decreased renal tubular transport of uric acid, and then the side effect of increased tubular reabsorption of calcium.

13-    Which of the following is NOT betamethasone side effect ?

A-      Cataract                         b-      hypoglycemia

c-       Skeletal muscle weakness d-    sodium retention

e-      Lowered resistance to infections


14-    A disease which is due to viral infection :

a-      poliomyelitis                    b-rabies      

c-       chicken pox                    d-      herpes

e-      all of the above


15-    The mechanism of action of atropine is :

a-      muscarinic antagonist     b-      muscarinic agonist

c-       nicotinic antagonist        d-      nicotinic agonist

e-      non of the above

16-    Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical is :

a-      inotropy                          b-      chronotropy

c-       automaticity                    d-      contractility

e-      non of the above "Dromotropic effect"


17-    The heart`s dominant pacemaker is :

a-      AV node                          b- SA node

c-       pukinje fiber                    d-internodal pathways

e-      non of the above


18-    Adenosine is used for :

a-      ventricular arrythmias               b-      atrial bradycardia

c-       supraventricular tachycardia     d-      supraventricular bradycardia

e-      non of the above


19- Adenosine P produces which of the following :

a-      facial flushing                 b-      dyspnea

c-       marked tachycardia        d-      a and b

e-      a , b and c


20- Which of the following is responcible for buffering

a-      magnesium                     b-      chloride

c-       bicarbonates                   d-      potassium

e-      troponin



21-    Respiratory acidosis is due to :

a-      O2 removal            b-      O2 retention

c-       CO2 removal                   d-      CO2 retention

e-      non of the above


22-    Which of the following is NOT colloid solution ?

a-      albumin 5%           b-      ringer`s solution

c-       dextran                 d-      beta starch

e-      albumin 20%


23-    The term shock signifies :

a-      hyperperfusion      b-      hypoperfusion      

c-       tachycardia           d-      bradycardia

e-      non of the above


24-    In treatment of shock , which of the following should be considered?

a-      airway control                  b-      IV of crystalloid solution

c-       dopamine to support blood pressure

d-      monitor heart rhythm      e-      all of the above


25-    Which of the following is released by bacterial infection?(…. by bacterial cell wall during there growth)

a-      endotoxin                       b-      exotoxin     

c-       antibiotics                       d-      cytotoxin    

e-      non of the above


26-    the amount of water in adult male is about:

a- 25%        b-60%         c-80%         d-10%         e-17%


27-    Which of the following are causes of oedema?

a-      Increase hydrostatic pressure

b-      Decrease oncotic pressure        c-       capillary permeability

d-      a and b                                     e-      a , b and


28- Patients prescribed non reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor should be advised not to consume food containing tyramine because this combination causes:

a-      postural hypotension       b-      hallucinations

c-       anaphylactic shock          d-      muscle weakness and tremor

e-      acute adrenergic crisis including sever hypertention


29- Concerning COX 2 inhibitors , which is NOT true?

a-      they have lower risk gastric adverse reactions

b-      good evidence about their effectiveness

c-       cardiac toxicity is a recent concern of this class

d-      they usually administrated twice daily

e-      combination with non selective agents give more effective action


30-    In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is NOT true?

a-      alendronate should be taken 60 min. before breakfast

b-      Ca and vit. D are essential

c-       hormone replacement therapy should be considered

d-      outcome should be assessed with periodic bone density

e-      raloxifeno is selective oestrogen modulator


31-    Which of the following is the first choice in acute gout?

a-      allopurinol              b-      indomethacin

c-       colchicine              d-      probencid              e-sulfinylpyrazone


32-    Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for osteoparalysis?

a-      minimal exercise              b-      low calcium intake

c-       male gender                    d-      family history

e-      minimal exposure to sunlight


33-    Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning are :

a-      lethergy & fatigue                      b-skin rash & headache

c-       throbbing headache & dizziness  d-fluid retention hypotension

e-      ringing in the ears & blurred vision


34-    Which of the following is NOT true about infiximuab

a-     IL-1 blocker   

b-     used for treatment of severe rheumatoid arthritis

c-     may increase risk of infections  

d-    administered as IV infusion

e-    postadministration reactions include fever & chills


35- A disease modifying drugs in rheumatoid arthritis:

a-      gold preparations          b-     hydroxychloroquine

c-       methotrexate               d-      a and b

e-      a , b and c

36- A patient who is admitted through the E.R. with an initial diagnosis :

a-      slow ventricular response using verapamil    b-      start lidocaine infusion

c-       considered anticoagulation with warfarine    d-      a and b


37-    Which of the following is true about surgical prophylaxis ?

a-      it is given to treat surgery associated infections

b-      it is given to reduce the possibility of surgical site infection

c-       should always be given regardless type of surgery

d-      should be continued for 7 days after surgery e-all are true


38-    When diagnosis of diabetes to be considered :

a-      WBC count with differential

b-      oral glucose tolerance test       

c-       HBA1c                   d-      a and b                 e-      b and c


39-    The usual daily dose of phenytoin in the range of:

a-      1-5 mg                  b-      15-60 mg

c-       300-600                d-      should be continued for 7 days after surgery

e-      all are true

40-    Goals of diabetes mellitus management include:

a-      reduce onset of complications   b-      control symptoms of diabetes

c-       near normal glycemic control and HBA1c

d-      a and b                                     e- a , b and c


41-    When dosing insulin which of the following is true?

a-      initial dose 0.6 u / kg / day split 2/3 a.m and 1/3 p.m

b-      regular NPH ratio is 1 : 1 or 1 : 2

c-       dose may need to be increased during acute illness

d-      b and c       

e-      a , b and c


42-    What first line agent may be considered for an obese type 2 ?

a-      glyburinid              b-      insulin                   c-       metformin   

d-      nateglinid              e-      repaglinid


43-    A solution is made by dissolving 17.52 g of NaCl exactly 2000 ml. What is the molarity of this solution?

a-      3.33             b-      0.15

c-       1.60             d-      3.00 x 10-4           e-      1.6x10 -4

Morality=mole/volume (L) Mole=molecular weight of subs. In 1 grams So, molecular weight of NACL=23+34=57 So, Mole=17.52/57=0.307

So, Morality=0.307/2=0.153


44-    Which of the following drugs exhibits dose dependant pharmaceutical therapeutic doses ?

a-      Na valproate           b-      phenytoin              c-lithium

d-      quinidine               e-      carbamazepine


45-    Propranolol is often prescribed with hydralazine to

a-      reduce the reflex tachycardia  

b-      prevent the accumulation of hydralazine.

c-       prevent systemic lupus ( SLE ) due to hydralazine.

d-      prevent oedema

e-      increase absorption of hydralazine


46-    The ability of a liquid to dissolve is :

a-      hydrophilicity                  b-      miscibility

c-       immiscibility                    d-      solubility equilibrium


47-    Which of the following is NOT correct ?

a-      glitazones are ineffective as mono therapy

b-      GIT disturbance are common side effects of glycosidase inhibitors-a

c-       start with small dose of oral agent and triturate up to 1-2 weeks

d-      life style modification should not be enforced if an oral agent to be started 

e-      lisepro is rapid acting insulin to be dosed immediately before meals


48- In CHF management the following is not correct:

a-      ACEIs such as lisinopril improves left ventricular function & reduces mortality -blocker such as carvidailol may have beneficialb

b-      effect in selected patient

c-       spironolactone should be avoided because of the great risk of hypokalemia

d-      non drug therapy includes appropriate fluid and dietary sodium-restriction

e-      symptomatic improvement is one of the major assessment criteria for proper therapy


49- Which of the following is NOT a primary literature

a-      gournal of pharmacy practice

b-      applied therapeutic & clinical use of drug

c-       new England Journal of medicine

d-      Loncet e- JAMA

50-    References to check compatibility of drugs in parentral administration:

a-      MERCK Index        b-      handbook on injectable drugs

c-       micromedix           d-      a and b

e-      b and c


51-    When a CNS depressant is prescribed , which of the following is NOT taken at the same time?

a-      analgesic                         b-      verapamil

c-       aspirin                            d-      diphenhydramine 

e-      orange juice

52-    A 4 mg dose of lorazepam administered to a adult will act as :

a-      analgesic               b-      hypnotic     

c-       diuretic                 d-      antihistaminic       

e-      antiulcerant


53-    The drug of choice to control pain during acute myocardial infarction is :

a-      naloxone               b-      bethidine    

c-       morphine               d-      celecoxib    

e-      naproxen


54-    What is a major contraindication to the use of an OTC sympathomimetic drug:

a-      gastric ulcer           b-      uncontrolled hypotension

c-       severe asthma       d-      rheumatoid arthritis

e-      hypertension


55-Category C in FDA for drug used in pregnancy :

a-      controlled studies fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the trimester and there is no evidence of risk in later trimester

b-      Fetal risk NOT demonstrated in animal studies but there are no controlled studies in pregnant women or animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect that was NOT confirmed in controlled studies in women during trimester

c-       Either animal study have revealed adverse effect on the fetus and there are no controlled human studies or studies in animal and women are not available

d-      There is positive evidence of human fetal risk but the benefits of use in pregnant woman may be acceptable despite the risk


56-    What advice would you give to a patient prescribed rifampicin?

a-      take this medication with food or milk

b-      avoid multivitamine preparations during treatment

c-       avoid taking paracetamol during treatment

d-      possible discolouration of skin is of no importance

e-      this medication may cause discolouration of urine


57-    Correct method of parentral administration of potassium is:

a-      fast I.V. injection

b-      slow I.V. injection 

c-       I.M. injection

d-      IP(intraperitoneal) injection


58-    Which route of administration would provide the most rapid onset of action response to morphine ?

a-      oral              b-      S.C.             c-       I.V.

d-      I.M.              e-      rectal


59-    The long term administration of thiazide diuretics requires :

a-      K+               b-      Na+            c-       Ca++

d-      CO3             e- acetate

60-    Fifty micrograms equals:

a-      50000 (nanogrames)?              b- 0.05 ( milligrams )?

c-       0.0005g                                   d-      a and b

e-      a and c

61-    When concidering drug therapy for hypertention , which is true?

a-      combination of drugs always preferred

b-      hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension

c-       furosemide should be administrated before meal to improve absorption d-beta-blokers should be avoided in asthmatic patient

e-      ACEIs are recommended in pregnant women


62- Which of the following is NOT used in theophylline toxicity management :

a-      symptomatic control of seizures with benzodiazepine

b-      activated charcoal to enhance elimination

c-       b blocker for tachycardia

d-      control vomiting with metoclopramide

e-      methylphenidate to reduce excessive sedation


63- Regarding the use of ACEIs :

a-      associated hypokalemia could be avoided by giving K-supplement

b-      effective in reducing proteinurea in diabetic patient

c-       most common side effect is chronic dry cough

d-      a good first line treatment for hypertensive diabetic

e-      dose should be started low and triturated gradually upward in need


64-    Regarding treatment of digoxin toxicity:

a-      verify time of last time

b-      check Mg and K levels and correct if needed         c-monitor ECG

d-      no antidote for digoxin    e-supportive care


65-    The antimalarial to avoid in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency :

a-      primaquine            b-      quinine

c-       chloroguanide      


66-    HOW can prepare 100 ml of 12% MgCl by taking?

a-      12ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water

b-      12mg of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water

c-       12ml of MGCL dissolve in 1000 ml water

d-      90.5 ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water

e-      0.95 ml of MGCL dissolve in 100 ml water


68-    The following is NOT characteristic of solution:

a-      thermodynamically stable

b-      composed of two or more component that exist in one phase c-homogenous

d-      the solvent and solute can be separated by filtration e-solute doesn`t precipitate as time passes


69-    Role of carbidopa in treatment of Parkinsonism.

a-      Serotonin reuptake      b-      dopamine agonist

c-       Decrease dopamine METABOLISM in peripheral vessel

d-      Dopamine antagonist      e-      5HT1 antagonist


70-    Role of B-blockers in angina. :

A-      subress activation of the heart so decrease work of the heart by decrease cardiac output ………….

b-      subress activation of the heart so increase work of the heart by increase cardiac output ………….

c-      a & b


71-    When drug absorbed through GIT then go to liver and excreted this process called

a-      first pass               b-      drug metabolism

c-       drug distribution


72-    All the following anti inflammatory, analgesic effect except

a-      ibuprofen               b-      aspirin

c-       naprosyn               d-      sevredol

73-    which of the following need filtration before IV infusion

a-      mannitol                b-      dextrose 5%

c-       insulin                            d-      Suspension           e-      emulsion


74-    azaleic acid used in

a-      acne                     b-      psoriasis                c-       myocardial infarction

75-    which hormone are secreted from posterior pituitary gland

a-      oxytocin                b-      growth hormone

c-       adrenocorticosteroid hormone

76-    to increase duration of lidocaine in anasethia

a-      propranolol                     b-      succinyl choline

c-       epinephrine                     d-      Atropine               


77-    Drug absorption depend on

a-      age              b-      sex    c-       dosage form

d-      Drug state   e-      A and B


78-    monitoring for dose in elderly patient:

a-      excretion in kidney decrease    b-      decrease in liver enzymes function c-          reabsorption is high             d-      metabolism is high                        e-       A ,b


79-    which of the following cause metallic taste

a-      captopril                          b-      cimetidine

c-       metoformin                     d-      Meteronidazole


80-    which of the following are characteristic for Erythroped

a-      not effective against G +ve cocci

b-      not macrolide antibiotic

c-       can increase GIT motility


81-    which of the following are characteristic for Erythrosine:

a-      not effective against G+ve cocci

b-      has amino glycoside antibiotic

c-       decrease GIT motility

d-      should not be used in pregnant woman if need

e-      could be used in pregnant woman if need


82-    the optimal size for ophthalmic drops:- < 10μg


83-    Amphetamine is used in:

defect of awareness in the brain of children.


84-    if packaged are written for expiry November 2006 it mean that         can be used till

a-      1 November                    b-      31 November


85-    The mechanism of action of Buspirone through

a-      5HT antagonist      b-      GABA agonist c-    dopaminergic agnoist

d-      dopaminergic antagonist


86-    Nitroglycerine introduces:

coronary vasodilatation.


87-    Omeprazole used to:


decrease gastric acid secretion.

88-    which of the following has aldosterone antagonist effect

a-      amiloride               b-      furosemide

d-      hydrochlorothiazide


89-    which of the following change color of the urine to red

a-      nitrofurantoin , rifampicin

b-      Rifaximin              

c-       Isonizide


90- if patient take Gentamicin for a time which of the following need monitoring test


a-      serum creatinine level               b-      liver enz. test

c-       hemoglobin test                       d-      ......................


91-    which of the following is antiarrythmic class Ιa:-

a-      lidocaine                b-      propranolol

c-       amiodarone           d-      Quinidine


92-    Class ΙΙ antiarrythmic drugs produce its action through:-

a-      decrease rate of phase 0 depolarization      

b-      increase phase 3 repolarization

c-       adrenergic receptor blocking

d-      shorten action potential


93-    antiarrythmic drug class Ιb produce its action through:-

a-      decrease rate of phase 0 depolarization      

b-      increase phase 3 repolarization

c-       decrease phase 4 depolarization        

d-      adrenergic receptor blocking


94-    Chiral molecule mean:-

a-      dipole moment     

b-      solubility     

c-       chelating prep.

d-      optical activity.


95-    lovastatin produce action through:-

HMG-co reductase inhibitor.


96-    lisopril , zinopril or zestril is found in :-

a-      captopril      b-      fosinopril

c-       ramipril        d-      lisinopri


97-    ″ om″ is abbreviation for at morning.


ophthalmic prescription are written through following  ( gtt tod Bid ) this mean:-

a-      give one drop to right eye twice daily

b-      give one drop to left eye twice daily

c-       shake well and then give one drop to left eye twice daily

d-      shake well and then give one drop to right eye twice daily.


99-    tegretol is used in ttt of:-

status epileptic, seizures.


100-  Streptokinase is used in ttt of:-

pulmonary emboli.


Question # Answer Question # Answer
1 a 52 b
2 c 53 c
3 c 54 e
4 d 55 c
5 c 56 e
6 a 57 b
7 c 58 c
8 d 59 a
9 b 60 d
10 e 61 d
11 d 62 e
12 e 63 c
13 b 64 b
14 e 65 a
15 a 66 b
16 c 67 d
17 b 68 d
18 c 69 c
19 d 70 a
20 c 71 a
21 d 72 d
22 b 73 d
23 b 74 a
24 e 75 a
25 b 76 c
26 b 77 c
27 e 78 e
28 e 79 a
29 e 80 c
30 a 81 e
31 b 82 a
32 c 83 a
33 e 84 b
34 a 85 c
35 e 86 a
36 b 87 a
37 b 88 c
38 e 89 a
39 c 90 a
40 e 91 d
41 e 92 c
42 c 93 e
43 b 94 d
44 b 95 a
45 a 96 d
46 b 97 a
47 d 98 d
48 c 99 a
49 b 100 a
50 e row50 col 4
51 d
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